Replay to my classmate post in 150 words

This the question

Hitler’s rise to power in Germany seems to have been one of the most improbable events of recorded history. How do we account for it? That is, how did the conditions in Germany, Hitler himself, and the actions of the other European nations all combine to put Hitler at the head of one of the most powerful states of all time? How was Hitler able to consolidate and increase his power after 1933?

This is my classmate post:

Many political groups and popular ideologies in Germany following WW1 were going to be anti-Jew because Germans viewed their society, one that was mostly segregated like in many parts of Europe, as being responsible for sabotaging Germany in WW1. Likewise, limiting the representation of those Jewish people was made possible if Democracy was opposed. Hitler and his ideology of tyranny against the Jewish was supported only after a certain level of popular tyranny was involved, meaning, the population majority was already in favor of reduced rights and liberties for the minorities, Jews. Furthermore, the Treaty of Versailles was not being realized by the allied forces, meaning, the 14 Points proposed by President Wilson were not being followed closely. The nations were not demilitarizing as was promised, Germany was not divided into states, and not all nations were involved in the League of Nations. There was no enforcement, or no way to ensure these conditions were met, so Germany may not have seen reason to obey the treaty. Furthermore, the United States did not ratify the treaty, and this may have made the treaty seem less significant. Had the Treaty been fully applied, Germany may have had a more balanced and divided governmental power, and would not have been able to have such a total power in the nation the way that Hitler and the Nazi party did. There may have also been more focus given to individual domestic issues due to more layers of public management that would be in the government throughout a divided Germany.